PPSC Assistant Manager (BS-16) Past Paper 2023 – Punjab Auqaf Organization, Religious Affairs Department

The International Olympic Committee (IOC); established in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin; oversees the Olympic Games globally. Based in Lausanne; Switzerland; it organizes events; selects host cities; and promotes sportsmanship. Its role in fostering international unity through sports makes it a key topic in general knowledge exams. Options B; C; and D are incorrect; as they do not reflect the IOC’s official name. Understanding the IOC’s functions; such as coordinating the Olympics and Paralympics; is essential for competitive exams. The correct answer; A) International Olympic Committee; highlights its global authority.

The American War of Independence (1775–1783) happened before the French Revolution (1789–1799) and the Chinese Revolution (1949). This war led to the United States’ formation; driven by colonial resistance to British rule. The French Revolution followed; sparked by social inequalities; while the Chinese Revolution established communist rule. Chronologically; the American War is earliest; making C the correct choice. This question tests historical timelines; a frequent focus in exams requiring knowledge of global events and their sequence.

Designed by Pierre de Coubertin; the Olympic rings; symbolizing five continents’ unity; were first presented in 1913 and debuted at the 1920 Antwerp Games. The colors (blue; yellow; black; green; red) represent global participation. Option A (1896) marks the first modern Olympics; and B (1904) was an early Games; but neither featured the rings. The correct answer; C) 1913; is a key fact for understanding Olympic history; often tested in general knowledge sections of competitive exams.

Hegel’s dialectical materialism; later adapted by Marx; combines thought processes and material conditions to explain historical change. His thesis-antithesis-synthesis model shows how ideas evolve through conflict; influenced by economic realities. This dual approach underpins Marxist philosophy; making C the correct answer. Options A and B alone are incomplete; and D is incorrect as the concept is well-defined. This question tests philosophical knowledge; common in exams assessing intellectual history and theoretical frameworks.

Napoleon Bonaparte earned the title ‘Man of Destiny’ for his meteoric rise and transformative impact on Europe. His military victories; like Austerlitz; and the Napoleonic Code reshaped governance. Nehru; Hitler; and Mussolini; while significant; were not called this. The correct answer; A) Napoleon Bonaparte; reflects his historical prominence. This question is typical in exams testing knowledge of historical figures’ nicknames and their contributions to global history.

The Treaty of Westphalia (1648) concluded the Thirty Years’ War (1618–1648); a major European conflict over religion and politics. It established state sovereignty; shaping modern diplomacy. The Paris Treaty and Versailles relate to other events; and ‘Press Wick’ is fictional. The correct answer; D) Treaty of Westphalia; is crucial for understanding international relations history; a common exam topic.

Samuel Huntington’s 1993 ‘Clash of Civilizations’ theory posits that future conflicts will arise from cultural and civilizational differences; not ideology. He identified civilizations like Western and Islamic as key divides. Religion (B) is a factor but not primary; and US-USSR (C) reflects Cold War dynamics; not Huntington’s focus. The correct answer; A) Civilization; is a key concept in international relations exams.

Ping Pong diplomacy; starting in 1971; involved US-China table tennis exchanges; easing Cold War tensions and paving the way for Nixon’s 1972 visit. This occurred in the 1970s; making B correct. Other decades are incorrect as they don’t align with this event. This example of sports diplomacy is often tested in current affairs. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

The Kashiwazaki-Kariwa nuclear power station in Japan; with an 8;212 MW capacity; is the world’s largest as of 2025. Ukraine’s Zaporizhzhia and France’s Gravelines are smaller; and Canada lacks a comparable facility. Since none of the listed countries host the largest station; D) None of these is correct. This question tests global energy knowledge; vital for competitive exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

The Glasgow Climate Pact (COP26; 2021) saw nearly 200 countries commit to net-zero emissions; emphasizing coal phase-down and climate finance. Unlike the Paris Agreement’s broader goals; Glasgow focused on actionable steps. Option A is vague; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; C) Glasgow Climate Pact; is key for environmental exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

Transnational actors like NGOs primarily engage in direct action; lobbying; advocacy; and awareness to influence states. Funding and outreach (C) support these efforts but aren’t primary functions; as they enable rather than define core roles. Options A; B; and D directly impact policy or opinion; making C the correct answer. This distinction is key for global governance questions in exams.

London Bridge crosses the River Thames; a central artery of London; UK; supporting trade and history. The Thames hosts multiple iconic bridges; unlike the minor Fleet or fictional Lotus. The correct answer; B) Thames; is a staple in geography and general knowledge exams; highlighting London’s landmarks and their cultural significance.

The US 5th Fleet; based in Manama; Bahrain; oversees naval operations in the Persian Gulf; Red Sea; and Arabian Sea. This strategic hub supports Middle East security. Syria and Saudi Arabia lack such bases; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; C) Bahrain; is a key geopolitical fact for exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

India’s Citizenship Amendment Bill; passed on 11 December 2019; granted citizenship to non-Muslim refugees from certain countries; sparking controversy. This date is precise; unlike options B; C; or D. The correct answer; A) 11 December 2019; is significant for current affairs exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

New York City; often called the Big Apple; earned this nickname in the 1920s; popularized by journalist John J. Fitz Gerald; symbolizing its cultural and economic prominence. Washington and Los Angeles have distinct identities; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; B) New York; is a common general knowledge question in exams; testing cultural awareness.

Kamala Harris became the US Vice President in January 2021; serving under President Joe Biden. Mike Pence was Vice President until 2021; and George Clinton served in the early 1800s. The correct answer; B) Kamala Harris; is key for current affairs exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

The Gateway Arch; a 630-foot monument in St. Louis; Missouri; USA; symbolizes westward expansion. Designed by Eero Saarinen; it’s a national landmark. Italy and Germany have no such structure; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; B) USA; is a frequent exam question testing knowledge of iconic global landmarks.

International anarchy; in political science; describes a global system where no authority supersedes sovereign states. States act independently; prioritizing their interests; as no world government exists. Option A is unrelated; C misrepresents the concept; and D is too vague. The correct answer; B) No one superior to state; is critical for understanding international relations in exams.

The song "Aye Jawan" was sung by the Pakistani band Awaz; known for their patriotic tracks in the 1990s. Awaz; formed in 1992; blended pop and rock; contributing to Pakistan's music scene. Junoon; Strings; and Vital Signs are other prominent bands but not associated with this song. The correct answer; A) Awaz; reflects cultural knowledge of Pakistani music; often tested in general knowledge exams to assess familiarity with national arts and entertainment history.

Abdur Rehman Chughtai; a prominent Pakistani artist; was celebrated for his paintings blending Mughal and Persian styles with modern techniques. His work; often depicting cultural themes; earned international acclaim. Music; construction; and science were not his fields; making B the correct answer. This question tests knowledge of Pakistan’s cultural figures; common in competitive exams.

Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi; a prominent Islamic scholar; opposed Akbar’s Deen-e-Elahi; a syncretic religion blending elements of Islam; Hinduism; and others. Sirhindi’s orthodox stance criticized its deviation from Islamic principles. Other options were not directly linked to this opposition; making B the correct answer. This question is key for understanding Mughal history in Pakistan Studies.

The Tashkent Agreement; signed in January 1966; ended the 1965 Indo-Pakistan War; mediated by the Soviet Union. It aimed to restore peace and normalize relations. The precise month; January; makes A the correct answer. This agreement is a significant topic in Pakistan Studies for its role in post-war diplomacy.

Sami Ullah Khan; nicknamed ‘Flying Horse;’ was a legendary Pakistani field hockey player; contributing to multiple Olympic and World Cup victories. His agility defined Pakistan’s hockey dominance. Cricket; squash; and football were not his sports; making B the correct answer. This question tests knowledge of Pakistan’s sports history in competitive exams.

Lord Mountbatten; the last Viceroy of India; addressed Pakistan’s Constituent Assembly in Karachi in August 1947; during the partition. Karachi was Pakistan’s first capital. Islamabad; Delhi; and Lahore are incorrect in this context. The correct answer; B) Karachi; is a key fact in Pakistan’s independence history for exams.

The All India Muslim League celebrated the Day of Deliverance in 1939 to mark the Congress ministries’ resignation; seen as oppressive to Muslims. This event galvanized the Pakistan Movement. Other years are incorrect; making B the correct answer. This is a pivotal moment in Pakistan Studies for understanding pre-independence politics.

Mirani Dam; located in Balochistan; is built on the Dasht River. Completed in 2006; it supports irrigation and water supply in the region. Porali and Zhob rivers are not associated with this dam; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; A) Dasht River; is important for Pakistan’s geography and infrastructure knowledge in exams.

The Punjab Boundary Force; formed to maintain peace during the 1947 partition; was disbanded by Lord Mountbatten due to its inability to control communal violence. Quaid-e-Azam and other options are incorrect. The correct answer; B) Mountbatten; is a key fact in Pakistan’s partition history for competitive exams.

The military operation in East Pakistan; part of the 1971 war; ended in September 1971 with significant conflict leading to Bangladesh’s emergence. Other months are incorrect. The correct answer; C) September 1971; is crucial for understanding Pakistan’s history in competitive exams.

The 1857 War of Independence; also called the Sepoy Mutiny; was triggered by sepoys’ refusal to use cartridges greased with cow and pig fat; offending Hindu and Muslim sentiments. This sparked widespread rebellion against British rule. Mysore and Buxar wars are unrelated; making A the correct answer. This event is central to Pakistan Studies.

Yahya Khan was Pakistan’s third President (1969–1971); following Ayub Khan and preceding Zulfikar Ali Bhutto. His tenure saw the 1971 war and Bangladesh’s separation. Other options are incorrect in this context. The correct answer; B) Yahya Khan; is a key fact for Pakistan’s political history in exams.

US economic aid to Pakistan started in 1951; supporting development and military cooperation during the early Cold War. This marked a key diplomatic tie. Other years are incorrect. The correct answer; B) 1951; is significant for understanding Pakistan’s foreign relations in competitive exams.

Balochistan covers approximately 44% of Pakistan’s total area; the largest province by land but not matching options A; B; or C. Thus; D) None of these is correct. This question tests geographical knowledge; crucial for Pakistan Studies in exams.

Non-Muslims in the Punjab Legislative Assembly proposed dividing undivided Punjab through voting in 1947; leading to its partition between India and Pakistan. The Boundary Commission implemented boundaries; not the proposal. The correct answer; C) Non-Muslims of the constituent assembly; is key for partition history in exams.

Pashtunwali is the traditional social code guiding Pashtun culture; emphasizing honor; hospitality; and tribal loyalty. Other options are incorrect; as they don’t represent this code. The correct answer; A) Pashtunwali; is essential for understanding Pakistan’s cultural diversity in competitive exams.

Subhash Chandra Bose; a prominent Indian nationalist; formed the Indian National Army (INA) in 1941 to fight British colonial rule; collaborating with Japan during World War II. Dadabhai Naoroji and Lala Lajpat Rai were earlier leaders; not associated with the INA; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; B) Subhash Chandra Bose; is significant for understanding anti-colonial movements; often tested in Pakistan Studies for its relevance to the subcontinent’s independence struggle.

The Water Apportionment Accord; signed in 1991 in Pakistan; allocated water resources among provinces; addressing disputes over river usage. However; the question likely refers to a specific agreement in 1997 under Nawaz Sharif; resolving inter-provincial water issues. Options A; B; and D are incorrect in this context. The correct answer; C) 1997; is key for Pakistan’s resource management history; a common exam topic in Pakistan Studies.

Ormara port; a strategic naval base; is located in Balochistan; Pakistan; along the Arabian Sea coast. It supports maritime security and trade. Punjab; Sindh; and KPK lack this port; making D the correct answer. This question tests knowledge of Pakistan’s geography and infrastructure; crucial for competitive exams focusing on Balochistan’s strategic importance.

Justice Qazi Faez Isa became Chief Justice of Pakistan in September 2023; succeeding Umar Ata Bandial. Known for his judicial activism; he leads the Supreme Court in upholding constitutional law. Other options (Khosa; Nisar; Minallah) are former or serving justices but not the current Chief Justice. The correct answer; B) J. Qazi Faez Isa; is vital for current affairs exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

Dr. Anita Zaidi; a renowned Pakistani pediatrician; was inducted into the US National Academy of Medicine for her global health contributions; particularly in child health and vaccines. Sania Nishtar and Amjad Saqib are notable but not recognized for this honor. The correct answer; A) Dr. Anita Zaidi; is significant for current affairs exams. Update (as of 2025-09-02)

The Suez Canal; a vital global trade route in Egypt; connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea; facilitating maritime passage between Europe and Asia. Other options (A; C; D) are geographically incorrect. The correct answer; B) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea; is a key fact in geography exams; emphasizing the canal’s economic and strategic importance.

Egypt is uniquely positioned across Asia (Sinai Peninsula) and Africa (mainland); connected by the Suez Canal. Nigeria and Algeria are solely in Africa; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; C) Egypt; is a fundamental geography fact; often tested in exams for its transcontinental significance and strategic location.

The Kuroshio Current; a warm ocean current; originates east of Japan; flowing along its Pacific coast. It influences climate and marine ecosystems. Northern; western; and southern directions are incorrect for its origin. The correct answer; C) Eastern; is essential for understanding oceanography in geography exams; highlighting Japan’s environmental dynamics.

The Indus River; stretching over 3;000 km; is Pakistan’s longest river; serving as a lifeline for agriculture and water supply. Chenab; Sutlej; and Ravi are tributaries; shorter in length. The correct answer; A) Indus; is a core geography fact for Pakistan Studies; frequently tested in exams for its economic and historical significance.

The Four Corners of Africa refer to the point where Namibia; Botswana; Zambia; and Zimbabwe meet at the Zambezi River; near Kazungula. This unique quadripoint is a geographical landmark. Options B and C include incorrect countries; and D is wrong. The correct answer; A) Namibia; Botswana; Zambia; Zimbabwe; is key for African geography in exams.

Neil Shubin; in his book Your Inner Fish; argues humans evolved from fish-like ancestors; evidenced by shared anatomical traits like limb structures. This evolutionary perspective highlights our biological roots. Rat; monkey; and soul are incorrect in this scientific context. The correct answer; C) Fish; is a popular science topic; often tested in exams for its evolutionary insights.

Respiration is the reverse of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis converts carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen using sunlight; while respiration breaks down glucose to release energy; producing carbon dioxide and water. Digestion and excretion are unrelated processes; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; C) Respiration; is a fundamental concept in biology; frequently tested in everyday science sections of competitive exams.

Liquid nitrogen’s boiling point is -195.8 °C; approximated as -196 °C; used in cryogenics and medical applications. Option A (37 °C) is human body temperature; and C (0 °C) is water’s freezing point. The correct answer; B) -196 °C; is a key fact in everyday science exams; emphasizing properties of cryogenic substances.

The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms; including plants and animals. Chromosomes; DNA; and genes are components within cells; not the fundamental unit. The correct answer; D) Cell; is a cornerstone of biology; essential for everyday science questions in competitive exams; highlighting cellular organization in life forms.

Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928; the first antibiotic; revolutionizing medicine by treating bacterial infections. X-rays; insulin; and the telephone were discovered by others (Röntgen; Banting; Bell). The correct answer; A) Penicillin; is a landmark in medical science; frequently tested in everyday science sections of exams.

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is commonly used in fire extinguishers to smother fires by displacing oxygen; halting combustion. Sulphur; nitrogen; and oxygen are not used for this purpose. The correct answer; A) Carbon dioxide; is a key fact in everyday science; often tested in exams for its practical application in safety equipment.

Red blood cells have a life span of approximately 120 days in humans; after which they are broken down in the spleen. Other options (100; 160; 180 days) are incorrect. The correct answer; C) 120 days; is a fundamental biology fact; commonly tested in everyday science sections of competitive exams.

Sulfuric acid is used in lead-acid batteries; commonly found in vehicles; as an electrolyte to facilitate chemical reactions. Hydrochloric and hydrofluoric acids are not used in batteries; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; A) Sulfuric Acid; is a key chemistry fact; frequently tested in everyday science for its industrial applications.

Nitrous oxide (N₂O); known as laughing gas; is used in anesthesia and as a mild sedative; causing euphoria. Nitric oxide; ammonium oxide; and hydrogen peroxide have different uses. The correct answer; A) Nitrous oxide; is a standard chemistry question in everyday science exams; emphasizing medical and chemical knowledge.

In most software; the default printing orientation is portrait; where the page is taller than wide; suitable for standard documents. Landscape is wider; while page setup and print preview are not orientations. The correct answer; A) Portrait; is a basic computer literacy fact; often tested in exams for understanding document formatting.

A byte consists of 8 bits; the fundamental unit of digital data. Each bit is a 0 or 1; and 8 bits form a byte; capable of representing 256 values. Options A; B; and C are incorrect. The correct answer; D) 8; is a core concept in computer science; essential for exams testing digital data knowledge.

A soft copy is the digital output displayed on a computer monitor; unlike a hard copy (printed). Screen copy and print copy are not standard terms. The correct answer; D) Soft copy; is a fundamental computer studies concept; frequently tested in exams for understanding digital versus physical output.

RAM (Random Access Memory) is temporary memory; storing data only while a computer is powered on. ROM (Read-Only Memory) and hard disks are permanent storage; and D is incorrect. The correct answer; B) RAM; is a key computer science fact; tested in exams for understanding memory types and their functions.

Horizontal market software; like Microsoft Office; serves general purposes across industries; unlike vertical market software (industry-specific) or custom-built solutions. Closed source refers to licensing; not usage scope. The correct answer; C) Horizontal market software; is important for computer studies exams; highlighting software applications in professional settings.

The sentence "Don't you get this" is a question; requiring a question mark at the end to indicate interrogation. Option A correctly uses the contraction "Don’t" for "Do not" and places the question mark appropriately. Option B ends with a period; making it a statement instead of a question. Option C incorrectly inserts a comma after "Don’t;" disrupting the flow. Option D uses "got" instead of "get;" which is grammatically incorrect in this context. This punctuation choice tests understanding of interrogative sentences; a basic English skill in exams. Proper punctuation ensures clear communication; preventing misunderstandings in written English.

The preposition "to" fits the phrase "stoop down to;" meaning to lower oneself or submit to someone. In the sentence; it conveys that Muslims should not submit to anyone except Allah. Option A "before" is used in other contexts like "before Allah;" but here it's redundant. Option C "at" does not idiomatically match "stoop down." Option D is incorrect as "to" is appropriate. This question assesses preposition usage in idiomatic expressions; common in English exams to evaluate grammatical accuracy and contextual understanding.

Converting the passive voice "Tickets had been bought by us before 1 pm" to active voice results in "We had bought the tickets before 1 pm;" maintaining the past perfect tense. Option B shifts to present tense; altering the meaning. Option C incorrectly uses "has been bought;" keeping it passive and with subject-verb disagreement. Option D uses "should bought;" which is grammatically wrong. This transformation tests knowledge of voice changes; tense consistency; and sentence structure in English exams.

The active voice "Company has fired some workers" changes to passive "Some workers have been fired by the company;" preserving the present perfect tense. Option B uses past perfect; changing the timeline. Option C omits "been;" making it incomplete. Option D is wrong as A is correct. This question evaluates voice conversion rules; auxiliary verbs; and tense agreement; essential in English grammar assessments.

The conditional sentence "If she had worked hard; she would have passed the exam" requires "would have" followed by the past participle "passed." Option A has a typo "pass" instead of "passed;" but contextually fits the structure. Other options misuse tenses or forms. This tests third conditional for unreal past situations; a key grammar point in English exams.

The active sentence "The people elected him Mayor" in passive becomes "He was elected Mayor by the people;" using past tense and retaining the object complement "Mayor." Option A changes tense to present. Option B misplaces "Mayor." Option D uses "Him" incorrectly and omits "by." This question checks passive construction with complements; common in voice change exercises.

Interjections like "Ouch!" or "Wow!" can stand alone as complete sentences; expressing emotion. Verbs; adverbs; and conjunctions require additional elements. This distinguishes interjections' unique role in English; tested in parts of speech questions.

"Out of the blue" means something happening unexpectedly; without warning. Options A and B are literal; C is opposite. This idiom tests figurative language comprehension in English exams.

"Look through" means to examine carefully; fitting "look through the agreement." Other phrasal verbs don't suit. This assesses phrasal verb usage in context.

Pronouns are closed class; with fixed members; unlike open classes (nouns; adverbs; verbs) that accept new words. This question explores word class categories.

"Quick at" indicates skill in mathematics. Other prepositions don't fit idiomatically. This tests preposition collocations.

"Do" avoids repetition in "they do [want to leave early]." This is tag question or ellipsis usage.

Coolness relates to night as warmth to day; opposites in temperature and time. This tests analogical reasoning.

"Broke into tears" means suddenly started crying. This is idiomatic preposition use.

Feckless means irresponsible; antonym is careful. Others are synonyms or unrelated.