ASSISTANT DIRECTOR LABOUR WELFARE (BS-17) Labour & Human Resource Department15/01/2023

Amazon, one of the world’s largest e-commerce and technology companies, was founded by Jeff Bezos in 1994. Initially started as an online bookstore, it expanded into various sectors, including retail, cloud computing, and entertainment. The company’s growth revolutionized online shopping and set a precedent for digital marketplaces. Its founding in 1994 marks a pivotal moment in the tech industry, as it grew from a garage-based startup to a global powerhouse. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as they do not align with the historical timeline of Amazon’s establishment.

U Thant, a Burmese diplomat, served as the United Nations Secretary-General from 1961 to 1971, making him the first Asian to hold this prestigious position. His tenure was marked by efforts to mediate global conflicts, including the Cuban Missile Crisis and the Vietnam War. U Thant’s diplomatic skills and commitment to peace made him a significant figure in UN history. Options A (Ban Ki-moon, a later Secretary-General), C (Kofi Annan, from Africa), and D (Boutros Boutros-Ghali, from Egypt) are incorrect, as they do not fit the criteria of being the first Asian Secretary-General.

Pride and Prejudice, a classic novel exploring themes of love, class, and social expectations, was written by Jane Austen and published in 1813. Austen’s sharp wit and keen observation of societal norms made the novel a timeless masterpiece. The story follows Elizabeth Bennet and Mr. Darcy as they navigate personal growth and romance. Options A (Charlotte Brontë, author of Jane Eyre), C (Emily Dickinson, a poet), and D (Mary Shelley, author of Frankenstein) are incorrect, as they did not write Pride and Prejudice.

The CN Tower, an iconic telecommunications and observation tower, is located in Toronto, Canada. Standing at 553.3 meters, it was the world’s tallest freestanding structure until 2007 and remains a major tourist attraction. Its unique design and panoramic views make it a symbol of Canadian engineering. Options A (Vancouver), C (Montreal), and D (Ottawa) are incorrect, as the CN Tower is specifically situated in Toronto, a major hub in Ontario.

Diego Garcia, a small atoll in the Indian Ocean, is a strategic military base operated by the United States. Part of the British Indian Ocean Territory, it hosts a significant U.S. naval and airbase, playing a critical role in regional security and military operations. The base’s location supports rapid deployment in the Middle East and Asia. Options A (United Kingdom, which administers the territory but does not operate the base), C (France), and D (India) are incorrect, as the U.S. maintains control of the military facilities.

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was established in 1949 to promote collective defense among Western nations during the Cold War. Signed in Washington, D.C., the treaty aimed to counter Soviet influence and ensure mutual security. NATO’s formation marked a significant step in international alliances, with its headquarters now in Brussels, Belgium. Options A (1945, post-World War II), C (1955), and D (1960) are incorrect, as NATO was specifically founded in 1949 to address geopolitical tensions.

Myanmar, formerly known as Burma, gained independence from British colonial rule on January 4, 1948. This marked the end of over a century of British control, following negotiations led by figures like Aung San. The transition to independence was a significant moment in Myanmar’s history, shaping its modern political landscape. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as they do not correspond to the accurate historical date of Myanmar’s independence in 1948.

Ukraine International Airlines Flight 752 was shot down shortly after takeoff from Tehran, Iran, on January 8, 2020, due to human error. Iranian forces mistakenly identified the civilian aircraft as a threat and fired missiles, killing all 176 passengers and crew. This tragic incident occurred amid heightened tensions following U.S.-Iran conflicts. Investigations confirmed the error stemmed from miscommunication and inadequate radar protocols. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as official reports pinpointed human error as the cause. Update (as of 2025-08-29): No significant updates have altered the conclusion of human error as the cause.

The Zika virus, a mosquito-borne illness, was first identified in Uganda in 1947. Discovered in the Zika Forest, it initially affected monkeys and was later found to infect humans, causing mild symptoms in most cases but severe complications in pregnant women. Its global attention surged during the 2015–2016 outbreak in South America. Options A (Brazil, a later outbreak site), C (Nigeria), and D (India) are incorrect, as Uganda is the virus’s origin point, confirmed by scientific records.

Indira Gandhi, India’s first female Prime Minister, was assassinated on October 31, 1984, by her Sikh bodyguards in response to Operation Blue Star, a military operation she authorized. This event shocked India and led to widespread communal violence. Her leadership, marked by bold policies and controversies, made her a prominent figure in global politics. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1984 is the historically verified year of her assassination, a pivotal moment in India’s history.

Israel captured East Jerusalem during the Six-Day War in June 1967, a conflict involving Israel and neighboring Arab states. This annexation, including the Old City, remains a contentious issue in international politics and the Israeli-Palestinian conflict. The war reshaped regional boundaries and intensified diplomatic debates. Options A (1948, related to Israel’s establishment), C (1973, Yom Kippur War), and D (1980, related to Jerusalem’s status law) are incorrect, as 1967 marks the specific event of East Jerusalem’s capture.

In a standard basketball game, each team fields five players on the court at a time. This includes positions like point guard, shooting guard, small forward, power forward, and center, as defined by international rules, including those of the NBA and FIBA. The five-player rule ensures dynamic gameplay and strategic balance. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as basketball consistently requires five players per team during active play, a standard across professional and amateur levels.

The Louvre Museum, one of the world’s most visited art museums, is located in Paris, France. Housing iconic works like the Mona Lisa and Venus de Milo, it is a cultural landmark along the Seine River. Its historical significance as a former royal palace adds to its global appeal. Options A (London, home to the British Museum), C (Rome), and D (Madrid, home to the Prado Museum) are incorrect, as the Louvre is distinctly situated in Paris.

Anwar Sadat served as the President of Egypt from 1970 until his assassination in 1981. He is best known for signing the Camp David Accords, a peace treaty with Israel, earning him the Nobel Peace Prize. His leadership marked a shift in Egypt’s foreign policy toward diplomacy with the West. Options A (Syria), C (Jordan), and D (Lebanon) are incorrect, as Sadat’s presidency and legacy are tied to Egypt, a key player in Middle Eastern politics.

Globalization has significantly improved the living standards of workers in developing countries by creating job opportunities, increasing wages, and fostering economic growth through trade and investment. It has enabled access to global markets, technology, and skills, particularly in nations with emerging economies. While challenges like inequality persist, the economic upliftment of workers in these regions is a key outcome. Options A, C, and D are less accurate, as globalization’s most transformative impact has been on developing countries’ labor forces.

Ashgabat is the capital of Turkmenistan, a Central Asian nation known for its vast natural gas reserves and unique architecture. The city, often called the “White Marble City,” features grandiose buildings and monuments reflecting the country’s post-Soviet identity. Its strategic location enhances its regional significance. Options A (Uzbekistan, capital: Tashkent), C (Kazakhstan, capital: Astana), and D (Kyrgyzstan, capital: Bishkek) are incorrect, as Ashgabat is specifically the capital of Turkmenistan.

Mustafa Kemal Atatürk, the founder of modern Turkey, abolished the Khilafat (Caliphate) in 1924 as part of his secularization reforms. This move ended the Ottoman Caliphate, separating religion from state governance and establishing a secular republic. Atatürk’s reforms modernized Turkey’s political and social systems. Options B, C, and D refer to historical Ottoman figures who did not abolish the Khilafat, making A the correct choice for this pivotal moment in Turkish history.

The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan on December 24, 1979, marking the start of a decade-long conflict. This intervention aimed to support a communist government but led to a prolonged war with significant global repercussions, including the rise of mujahideen resistance. The invasion strained Soviet resources and influenced Cold War dynamics. Options B, C, and D are incorrect, as the invasion is historically documented as beginning on December 24, 1979, a critical event in modern history.

The standard width of a long jump runway, as per International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF) regulations, is 1.22 meters. This dimension ensures athletes have a consistent and safe surface for their approach before jumping. The precise measurement is critical for competitive fairness and safety in track and field events. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1.22 meters is the globally accepted standard for long jump runways in official competitions.

The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean in the world, covering approximately 155.6 million square kilometers and accounting for about one-third of Earth’s surface. It stretches from the Americas to Asia and Australia, hosting diverse ecosystems and major trade routes. Its vast size and depth make it a critical component of global climate and geography. Options A (Atlantic), C (Indian), and D (Arctic) are incorrect, as the Pacific surpasses them in both area and volume.

Article 184(3) of the 1973 Constitution of Pakistan grants the Supreme Court Suo Motu powers, allowing it to take up cases on its own initiative when fundamental rights or public interest issues are involved. This provision empowers the judiciary to address matters of national significance without formal petitions, ensuring justice and accountability. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as Article 184(3) specifically outlines the court’s authority to act proactively in such cases, a cornerstone of Pakistan’s judicial system.

The Farazi Movement was started by Haji Shariatullah in the early 19th century in Bengal, aiming to reform Muslim society by emphasizing strict adherence to Islamic principles and opposing colonial influences. It sought to purify religious practices and mobilize rural communities against British rule. The movement’s legacy influenced later independence efforts. Options B, C, and D are incorrect, as Haji Shariatullah was the founder, distinct from other reformist or political figures in South Asian history.

The All Parties Conference of 1928 was a significant event in India’s struggle for independence, convened to draft a constitution for self-governance in response to British policies. It produced the Nehru Report, advocating for dominion status and unity among diverse political groups. This conference marked a step toward unified nationalist demands. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1928 is the historically accurate year for this pivotal gathering in the independence movement.

Sir Evan Jenkins served as the last Governor of undivided Punjab from 1946 until the partition of India in 1947. His tenure was marked by efforts to manage communal tensions during the lead-up to independence. As a British administrator, he oversaw Punjab’s transition during a critical period. Options B, C, and D are incorrect, as Jenkins was the final governor before the region was divided into Indian and Pakistani territories.

The Cabinet Mission arrived in India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power from British rule to Indian leadership. It proposed a federal structure for an independent India, attempting to balance demands for unity and partition. Though its plan was not fully implemented, it shaped pre-partition discussions. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1946 marks the mission’s visit, a key moment in India’s path to independence.

Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the Indian National Congress in 1906, initially advocating for Hindu-Muslim unity and Indian self-governance. His early political career focused on constitutional reforms within the Congress before he later joined the Muslim League. This step marked his entry into national politics. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1906 is the historically verified year of his affiliation with the Congress.

The Battle of Karnal, fought in 1739, saw Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah defeated by Nadir Shah, the Persian ruler. This decisive battle weakened the Mughal Empire, leading to the sack of Delhi and the loss of treasures like the Peacock Throne. Nadir Shah’s victory highlighted the empire’s decline. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as Nadir Shah was the specific adversary in this significant 18th-century conflict.

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 was enacted by the British to reform governance in colonial India after the 1857 rebellion. It expanded legislative councils and allowed limited Indian representation, marking an early step toward political reforms. The act aimed to stabilize British rule while addressing local demands. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1861 is the accurate year of the act’s passage, a key moment in colonial administration.

The Johar Town Blast in Lahore, occurring in June 2021, was linked to concerns raised by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), which monitors terrorism financing. The incident highlighted Pakistan’s challenges in addressing security issues to comply with FATF’s anti-terrorism financing standards. It underscored the need for robust counter-terrorism measures. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as FATF is directly relevant to the incident’s context. Update (as of 2025-08-29): Pakistan remains under FATF scrutiny, with ongoing efforts to meet compliance requirements.

Qazi Muhammad Isa was a prominent leader who served as the President of the Baluchistan Muslim League, playing a key role in mobilizing support for the Pakistan Movement in the region. His efforts strengthened the Muslim League’s influence in Baluchistan during the pre-partition era. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as historical records confirm Qazi Isa’s presidency, a significant contribution to Pakistan’s independence struggle.

The Baluchistan Plateau lies west of the Koh Kirthar and Sulaiman Range in Pakistan, characterized by its arid, rugged terrain. This region, covering much of Baluchistan province, features unique geological formations and sparse vegetation, making it distinct from surrounding areas. Its location west of these ranges shapes its climate and topography. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as the plateau’s position is accurately described as west of both the Koh Kirthar and Sulaiman Range.

Chaj Doab is the fertile land between the Chenab and Jhelum rivers in Punjab, Pakistan. The term “Doab” refers to the region between two rivers, and Chaj Doab is known for its agricultural productivity due to its riverine boundaries. This area supports significant farming and settlement. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as Chaj Doab is specifically defined by the Chenab and Jhelum rivers, a key geographical feature of Punjab.

Nanga Parbat, standing at 8,126 meters, is the highest peak of the Himalayan range in Pakistan. Known as the “Killer Mountain” due to its challenging climbs, it is located in Gilgit-Baltistan and is a prominent feature of the western Himalayas. Options A (K2, in the Karakoram range), C (Rakaposhi), and D (Tirich Mir, in the Hindu Kush) are incorrect, as Nanga Parbat is the tallest Himalayan peak in Pakistan.

Coniferous forests, characterized by evergreen trees like pines and firs, are found in Chitral, Dir, and Swat in Pakistan. These forests thrive in the cooler, mountainous regions of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, supporting biodiversity and timber resources. Their needle-like leaves adapt to cold climates. Options A (Tropical, found in warmer regions), B (Deciduous, shedding leaves seasonally), and D (Mangrove, coastal) are incorrect, as coniferous forests dominate these high-altitude areas.

Punjab Province in Pakistan lies between the latitudes of 27.42°N and 34.02°N. This range places it in the northern part of the country, contributing to its diverse climate, from fertile plains to semi-arid regions. The latitude influences its agricultural productivity and seasonal patterns. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 27.42 to 34.02 N accurately defines Punjab’s geographical extent, critical for understanding its environmental and economic characteristics.

Hydrogen, with an atomic number of 1, is the first element in the periodic table. It is the simplest and most abundant element in the universe, consisting of one proton and one electron. Its properties make it fundamental to chemistry and energy applications. Options A (Helium, atomic number 2), C (Lithium, atomic number 3), and D (Beryllium, atomic number 4) are incorrect, as Hydrogen holds the primary position in the periodic table’s structure.

Cryptogams are non-flowering plants that reproduce via spores and lack flowers or seeds, including ferns, mosses, and algae. These plants are typically found in shaded, moist environments and play a vital role in ecosystems. Unlike flowering plants (angiosperms and gymnosperms), cryptogams have simpler reproductive structures. Options A (Angiosperms, flowering plants), B (Gymnosperms, seed-producing but non-flowering), and D (Monocots, a type of flowering plant) are incorrect, as cryptogams specifically refer to non-flowering species.

Optical fibers work on the principle of total internal reflection, where light signals are transmitted through a glass core by repeatedly bouncing off the inner walls without loss. This allows high-speed data transmission over long distances, critical for telecommunications and internet connectivity. Options A (Refraction, bending of light), C (Diffraction, spreading of light), and D (Dispersion, separation of light) are incorrect, as total internal reflection is the specific mechanism enabling optical fiber functionality.

Johannes Kepler, a German astronomer, proposed the three laws of planetary motion in the early 17th century. These laws describe elliptical orbits, equal areas in equal times, and the relationship between orbital periods and distances. Kepler’s work laid the foundation for modern astronomy. Options A (Newton, known for gravity), C (Galileo, telescope observations), and D (Copernicus, heliocentric model) are incorrect, as Kepler specifically formulated the laws governing planetary motion.

Oxygen and acetylene are widely used in oxy-acetylene welding, a common technique for joining metals. Oxygen supports combustion, while acetylene burns at high temperatures, enabling precise cutting and welding. This combination is effective for industrial applications. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as oxygen and acetylene are the standard gases for this process, ensuring strong and efficient welds in various construction and repair tasks.

Michael Faraday proposed the law of electromagnetic induction in 1831, demonstrating that a changing magnetic field induces an electric current in a conductor. This principle underpins technologies like generators and transformers, revolutionizing electricity use. Options B (Maxwell, equations), C (Tesla, AC systems), and D (Ampère, electromagnetism) are incorrect, as Faraday’s experiments specifically established the law of magnetic induction, a cornerstone of modern electrical engineering.

Hydrogen-1, also known as protium, consists of one proton and one electron but has zero neutrons. This makes it the simplest and most common isotope of hydrogen. Other isotopes, like deuterium (1 neutron) or tritium (2 neutrons), differ in neutron count. Options B, C, and D are incorrect, as hydrogen-1 specifically has no neutrons, a fundamental characteristic in atomic structure studies.

In digital storage, 1 gigabyte equals 1024 megabytes, based on the binary system used in computing (2^10). This conversion is standard for measuring memory and storage capacities in devices like computers and smartphones. Understanding this is crucial for managing data efficiently. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as 1024 megabytes accurately defines a gigabyte in the context of computer storage systems.

The DOCX file extension is used for Microsoft Word documents, introduced with Microsoft Office 2007. Based on XML, it supports advanced formatting and is widely used for creating and sharing text documents. Options A (TXT, plain text), C (PDF, portable document format), and D (XLSX, Excel files) are incorrect, as DOCX is the specific extension for Word files, ensuring compatibility and functionality.

In Microsoft Word, page numbers are typically inserted in the header or footer sections of a document. The header, located at the top, is a common choice for professional documents, allowing consistent numbering across pages. Options C (Sidebar, not a standard feature) and D (Margin, not used for page numbers) are incorrect, while A (Footer) is also valid but less specific, as headers are equally standard.

Microsoft Access, a database management system, is not natively available on Linux due to its reliance on Windows-specific architecture. Other Microsoft Office products like Word, Excel, and PowerPoint can be accessed on Linux via web versions or compatibility layers like Wine. Options A, B, and D are incorrect, as MS Access is the primary Microsoft product unavailable natively on Linux systems.

DNS stands for Domain Name System, a critical internet protocol that translates human-readable domain names (e.g., www.example.com) into IP addresses, enabling devices to locate online resources. It acts as the internet’s phonebook, ensuring seamless browsing and connectivity. Options A, C, and D are incorrect, as Domain Name System is the accurate term for this foundational technology in computer networking.

To determine which fraction is greater than 3/4 (0.75) and less than 5/6 (approximately 0.833), convert the fractions to decimals. Step 1: Calculate decimals for the options: A) 2/3 = 0.666, B) 4/5 = 0.8, C) 7/8 = 0.875, D) 1/2 = 0.5. Step 2: Compare with 3/4 (0.75) and 5/6 (0.833). Only 4/5 (0.8) lies between 0.75 and 0.833. Alternatively, use a common denominator (60): 3/4 = 45/60, 5/6 = 50/60, 4/5 = 48/60, which confirms 45/60 < 48/60 < 50/60. Options A (0.666 0.833), and D (0.5 < 0.75) are incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is B.

To find the distance a car travels at 36 km/h in 20 seconds, convert the speed to meters per second and apply the distance formula. Step 1: Convert 36 km/h to m/s: 36 × (1000/3600) = 36 × 5/18 = 10 m/s. Step 2: Use distance = speed × time: 10 m/s × 20 s = 200 meters. Verify: In 20 seconds, 200 meters aligns with the speed (10 m/s). Options A (100 m), C (300 m), and D (400 m) do not match the calculation. Thus, the correct answer is B.

To solve √(-25) + 3√(-4) + 2√(-9), handle the square roots of negative numbers using imaginary units. Step 1: Compute each term: √(-25) = √(25 × -1) = 5i; 3√(-4) = 3√(4 × -1) = 3 × 2i = 6i; 2√(-9) = 2√(9 × -1) = 2 × 3i = 6i. Step 2: Sum the results: 5i + 6i + 6i = 17i. Verify: Each term is purely imaginary, and no real parts exist. Options A (15i), C (19i), and D (21i) do not match the sum. Thus, the correct answer is B.

To find the height of a parallelogram with an area of 54 cm² and a base of 15 cm, use the area formula: Area = base × height. Step 1: Set up the equation: 54 = 15 × height. Step 2: Solve for height: height = 54 / 15 = 3.6 cm. Verify: 15 × 3.6 = 54 cm², confirming the calculation. Options A (2.6 cm), C (4.6 cm), and D (5.6 cm) do not satisfy the equation. Thus, the correct answer is B.

To find the value of 6x - 7 given 3x - 8 = -23, solve for x first. Step 1: Solve 3x - 8 = -23: Add 8 to both sides: 3x = -15. Divide by 3: x = -5. Step 2: Substitute x = -5 into 6x - 7: 6(-5) - 7 = -30 - 7 = -37. Verify: If x = -5, 3x - 8 = 3(-5) - 8 = -23, which holds. Options A (-35), C (-39), and D (-41) do not match. Thus, the correct answer is B.

To find how long the food lasts after 25 men leave, calculate the total food supply in man-days and divide by the remaining men. Step 1: Initial provision = 150 men × 45 days = 6750 man-days. Step 2: Food consumed in 10 days = 150 men × 10 days = 1500 man-days. Remaining food = 6750 - 1500 = 5250 man-days. Step 3: Remaining men = 150 - 25 = 125. Days left = 5250 / 125 = 42 days. Verify: 125 × 42 = 5250 man-days, matching the remaining food. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is B.

Assume the production follows an arithmetic progression, where the number of units increases linearly each year. Let the first year’s production be a, and the common difference be d. Step 1: The third year’s production is a + 2d = 600 (1). The seventh year’s production is a + 6d = 700 (2). Step 2: Subtract (1) from (2): (a + 6d) - (a + 2d) = 700 - 600, so 4d = 100, d = 25. Step 3: Substitute d = 25 in (1): a + 2(25) = 600, a + 50 = 600, a = 550. Verify: Seventh year = 550 + 6(25) = 550 + 150 = 700, which holds. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is B.

The idiom “laugh in one’s sleeves” means to laugh secretly or inwardly, often in a way that conceals amusement from others. It originates from the idea of hiding laughter in one’s clothing, implying a private or sly reaction. This phrase is used when someone finds something amusing but does not show it openly, perhaps to avoid offending others. Options A (laughing loudly), C (laughing openly), and D (laughing nervously) do not capture the subtle, hidden nature of the idiom, making B the correct choice.

“Impertinent” means rude or disrespectful, especially in a way that is inappropriate to the situation. Its antonym, “polite,” refers to courteous and respectful behavior. In English vocabulary, identifying antonyms requires understanding the core meaning of the word, and polite directly opposes impertinent’s negative connotation. Options A (rude, a synonym), C (arrogant, similar in tone), and D (bold, unrelated) do not provide the opposite meaning, confirming B as the correct answer.

The preposition “over” is appropriate for the sentence “The bridge is constructed ____ the canal,” as it indicates the bridge spans above the canal, connecting two sides. In English, “over” is used for structures like bridges that cross over water bodies or obstacles. Options A (across, used for crossing on a surface), C (along, indicating parallel movement), and D (beside, meaning next to) are less precise, making “over” the correct choice for this context.

The sentence “She ____ for the upcoming tennis tournament” requires the present continuous tense, “is training,” to indicate an ongoing action preparing for a future event. In English grammar, the present continuous (is/are + verb-ing) is used for actions happening now or planned in the near future. Options A (simple present, habitual), C (past tense, completed), and D (future, not ongoing) do not fit the context of current preparation, making B the correct answer.

The sentence “My elder brother got a motor bike but I ____” requires “have not” to maintain parallel tense and convey that the speaker currently does not possess a motorbike. The past tense “got” suggests a completed action, and “have not” (present perfect) indicates the speaker’s current state. Options B (past tense, implying a specific event), C (future tense, irrelevant), and D (present continuous, incorrect structure) do not align with the sentence’s meaning, making A correct.

The sentence “White ball ____ for the first time in the 1992 Cricket World Cup” requires the past tense “was used” to describe a historical event. The 1992 Cricket World Cup introduced the white ball for day-night matches, a specific past occurrence. In English, the simple past tense is used for completed actions at a definite time. Options A (base form), B (present), and D (future) do not match the historical context, making C the correct choice.

The sentence “If Ashraf ____ earlier, he would always be on time” uses the third conditional (“had got up”) to describe an unreal past situation and its hypothetical result. In English grammar, the third conditional (if + past perfect, would + have + past participle) expresses regret or hypothetical outcomes. Here, it implies Ashraf’s lateness due to not waking up earlier. Options A (present), B (simple past), and D (future) do not fit the conditional structure, making C correct.

The sentence “You can go neither by train ____ by bus” requires the correlative conjunction “nor” to pair with “neither” in a negative construction, indicating both options are unavailable. In English, “neither…nor” is used to negate two possibilities. Options A (or, used with either), C (and, affirmative), and D (but, contrastive) do not form the correct negative structure, making “nor” the appropriate choice for this sentence.

The sentence “If you work hard, you ____ good marks” uses the first conditional (“will get”) to express a likely future outcome based on a condition. In English, the first conditional (if + present simple, will + base verb) indicates a real possibility. Hard work is likely to result in good marks. Options A (present, habitual), C (past), and D (present perfect) do not fit the future-oriented conditional structure, making B the correct answer.

The sentence “Anna has finished her work, now she is ____ home” requires “going” to indicate a current action in the present continuous tense (is + verb-ing). The word “now” suggests an ongoing process following her work’s completion. In English, the present continuous describes actions happening at the moment. Options B (past participle), C (simple past), and D (simple present) do not align with the current action, making A the correct choice.

The sentence “Fatima is not at home at the moment, She ____ work” requires “is at” to indicate her current location using the present simple tense. The phrase “at the moment” suggests a present state, and “is at” conveys where she is now. In English, the present simple is used for current states or locations. Options B (past), C (future), and D (present perfect) do not match the present context, making A the correct answer.

An exclamation sign (!) is used at the end of a sentence or phrase to express strong emotions, such as surprise or excitement. In English punctuation, it conveys intensity or emphasis, distinguishing it from other marks. Options A (question mark, for inquiries), B (comma, for pauses), and D (period, for statements) serve different purposes and do not indicate strong feelings, making C the correct choice for this punctuation rule.

The preposition “over” is correct for the sentence “Near the London Eye, there is a bridge ____ the Thames River,” as it indicates the bridge spans above the river, a common usage for bridges. In English, “over” denotes crossing over a body of water. Options A (across, for surface crossing), C (along, parallel movement), and D (beside, next to) are less precise for a bridge’s position, making B the appropriate choice.

The sentence “The marriage of the two sisters is married” is better phrased as “Each of the two sisters is married,” using “each” to emphasize individual status. In English, “each” is used for individual members of a small group, fitting the context of two sisters. Options A (both, implying collective), C (all, for larger groups), and D (either, for one of two) do not convey the individual focus as accurately, making B correct.

In the proverb “Faint heart never won fair lady,” “won” is a verb, the past tense of “win,” indicating the action of achieving victory or success. In English, verbs describe actions, and “won” reflects the act of gaining the lady’s affection. Options A (noun, a person/thing), C (adjective, descriptive), and D (adverb, modifying a verb) do not match “won”’s role, making B the correct part of speech.

The sentence “Lets play nice” should use “nicely,” an adverb, to correctly modify the verb “play.” In English, adverbs typically end in -ly and describe how an action is performed. “Nice” is an adjective, inappropriate here, while “nicely” conveys the manner of playing. Options B (comparative adjective), C (superlative adjective), and D (non-existent word) do not provide the correct adverb form, making A the correct correction.

In the biblical phrase “The wages of sin ____ death,” “is” is correct because “wages” is treated as a singular noun, meaning the consequence or reward of sin. In English, singular subjects take singular verbs, and “is” aligns with the phrase’s traditional wording. Options B (plural), C (past singular), and D (past plural) do not fit the grammatical or contextual structure, making A the correct choice.